I really appreciate how you described the Bible as a collection of texts where people are 'wrestling with God.' I think we both agree that the human element of the Bible is vibrant and real.
My genuine question for you and
@GratefulPoke, as I try to understand your perspective, is about the nature of God's role in that 'wrestling.' If we believe God is perfect and the source of all Truth, how do we determine where the 'divine inspiration' ends and the 'real problems' begin?
For me, the idea of inerrancy isn't about ignoring the human messiness, but about trusting that a perfect God is capable of using that messiness to deliver a perfect, truthful message. I see the Gospel variations not as errors, but as a multi-layered witness. Does your view of inspiration allow for the text to be 100% reliable even with its 'problems,' or do you feel we have to pick and choose which parts are actually from God?
Again asking in good faith here to understand where y'all are coming from.
Thanks for your post and looking to continue the conversation in good faith.
As I have shared before, I left the faith and consider myself a non-theist, so that should also be considered in my responses. If I approach this conversation with the assumption that Christianity is more or less true and God is perfect and is the source of all truth, then I would have to go with humans introduced their own biases and errors, and thus were imperfect in their teachings and constructions of the bible.
The reason why I would fall into this camp is because we can demonstrate that there are indeed errors in the bible and not just a few. The existence of a single error is enough to invalidate the "inerrancy & infallable" claim because we would be able to determine that the claim is meritless. Furthermore, there are some falsifiable claims in the bible, so we can test those claims on their merits and find them to be true or false.
I'll use two examples to demonstrate this. First, we have a direct contradiction between the Matthew and Mark accounts: In Matthew 12:30, Jesus says, “Whoever is not with me is against me”, but in Mark 9:40, he says the opposite: “Whoever is not against us is for us” both are teachings of Jesus chronologically in the same place in the gospel narrative. Both cannot be true, which one is it?
For the second example, lets look at 2 Samuel 15:
This is what the Lord Almighty says: ‘I will punish the Amalekites for what they did to Israel when they waylaid them as they came up from Egypt. Now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy all that belongs to them. Do not spare them; put to death men and women, children and infants, cattle and sheep, camels and donkeys.’”
If we take the command as the literal word of God, then he is not perfect and is particularly petty, cruel and vindictive. Since there are many other types of errors: historical errors, typographical errors, moral errors, theological/eisegetical errors in the bible, the only way to rectify this with a perfect God would be to determine that humans introduced their own bias, thoughts and concepts into the text.
Based on the evidence available to us, which would eliminate inerrancy and infalability as an option, there are only 3 primary conclusions one can come to regarding the bible. Everything else would be a minor variations of them:
1) God is perfect, but humans were imperfect in their recording of events and concepts
2) Humans accurately recorded events and concepts and God is not perfect
3) The bible is a compilation of what some ancient people thought about God and a great piece of anthropological study, but that is more or less it.
If I were a Christian and believed God is perfect, only option 1 would be viable.